Friday 15 August 2014

Data Warehousing And Data Mining CS2031 MJ2013 7th Semester Question Paper



Data Warehousing And Data Mining CS2031 MJ2013 7th Semester Question Paper

Anna University Question Paper Code : 21284
B.E.B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY/JUNE 2013.
Seventh Semester
Computer Science and Engineering
CS 2032 / CS 701 / 10144 CSE 32 — DATA WAREHOUSING AND DATA MINING
(Common to Sixth Semester Information Technology)
(Regulation 2008 / 2010)

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PART A — (10 x 2 = 20 marks)

1. What is a data mart?
2. State why one of the biggest challenges when designing a data warehouse is the data placement and distribution strategy.
3 What are production reporting tools? Give examples.
4. Define a data cube.
5. State the need for data cleaning.
6. What is pattern evaluation?
7. What is market basket analysis?
8. State the need for pruning phase in decision tree construction.
9. Classify hierarchical clustering methods.
10. What is an outlier?

Network Programming And Management IT2351 ND2013 7th Semester Question Paper



Network Programming And Management IT2351 ND2013 7th Semester Question Paper

Anna University Question Paper Code :315121
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBERJDECEMBER 2013
Seventh Semester
Computer Science and Engineering
IT 2351/IT 61/10144 IT 601 — NETWORK PROGRAMMING AND MANAGEMENT
(Common to Sixth Semester — Information Technology)
Regulation 2008/2010

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PART A — (10 x 2 = 20 marks)

1. How the port numbers are classified?
2. What is Socket?
3. Define Posix Signal Handling?
4. Define Wait 0 and wait pid 0 functions?
5. Define getsockopt and setsockopt.
6. What are the RES:USE _INET6 Resolver Option?
7. Define threads.
8. List any two differences between ping and trace route program.
9. What are the improvements in SNMPV2?
10. That is MIB?

Crytography And Network Security IT2352 ND2013 7th Semester Question Paper



Crytography And Network Security IT2352 ND2013 7th Semester Question Paper

Anna University Question. Paper Code :.31513
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2013.
Seventh Semester
Computer Science and Engineering 
IT 2352/IT 62/10144 IT 603/10144 CSE 46 — CRYPTOGRAPHY AND NETWORK SECURITY (Common to Sixth Semester — Information Technology) 
(Regulation 2008/2010) 

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Programming Questions  |  Travel Tips | Mobile Review | Placement Papers | Books



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ANNA UNIVERSITY PAPERS: CLICK HERE

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For More Question paper of CSECLICK HERE

PART.A — (10 x 2 = 20 marks)

1. Give an example each for, substitution and transposition ciphers
2. Why modular arithmetic has been used in cryptography?
3. What are the modes of DES?
4. List the uses of RC4.
5. Write any"two differences between MD4 and secure hash algorithni.
6. How digital signature is different from conventional? Give any two.
7. Define SET.
8. What do you mean by PGP?
9. What are the effects of malicious software? Write any two.
10. What is 'Worm'?

PART B (5 x 16= 80 marks)

11. (a) (i) What are the different types of attacks? Explain. (8)
(ii) State and explain Chinese remainder theorem with example. (8)

Crytography And Network Security IT2352 ND2013 7th Semester Question Paper



Crytography And Network Security IT2352 ND2013 7th Semester Question Paper

Anna University Question. Paper Code :.31513
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2013.
Seventh Semester
Computer Science and Engineering 
IT 2352/IT 62/10144 IT 603/10144 CSE 46 — CRYPTOGRAPHY AND NETWORK SECURITY (Common to Sixth Semester — Information Technology) 
(Regulation 2008/2010) 

University Papers | Syllabus | Entrance Exam | Govt & PSU Papers | Bank Papers

Programming Questions  |  Travel Tips | Mobile Review | Placement Papers | Books



ANNA UNIVERSITY SYLLABUS: CLICK HERE

ANNA UNIVERSITY PAPERS: CLICK HERE

Download PDF File - CLICK HERE

For More Question paper of CSECLICK HERE

PART.A — (10 x 2 = 20 marks)

1. Give an example each for, substitution and transposition ciphers
2. Why modular arithmetic has been used in cryptography?
3. What are the modes of DES?
4. List the uses of RC4.
5. Write any"two differences between MD4 and secure hash algorithni.
6. How digital signature is different from conventional? Give any two.
7. Define SET.
8. What do you mean by PGP?
9. What are the effects of malicious software? Write any two.
10. What is 'Worm'?

PART B (5 x 16= 80 marks)

11. (a) (i) What are the different types of attacks? Explain. (8)
(ii) State and explain Chinese remainder theorem with example. (8)

Statistics For Management BA7102 Jan2014 1st Semester Question Paper



Statistics For Management BA7102 Jan2014 1st Semester Question Paper

Anna University Question Paper. Code :80312- I
Reg. No.
M.B.A. DEGREE EXAMINATION, JANUARY 2014
First Semester
BA 7102 — STATISTICS FOR MANAGEMENT
(Regulation 2013)

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PART A — (10 x 20 marks)

1. Give two examples for categorical variables.
2. What is a random variable?
3. Why does sampling introduce errors in research studies?
4. State the central limit theorem.
5. Define .a hypothesis.
6. Distinguish between paiametric and non parametric tests.
7. Name two non parametric tests of association.
8. Distinguish between Mann Whitney test and Kruskal Walls tests.
9. Distinguish between seasonal variations and cyclital variations in a time series data.
10. What is nonsense correlation?



PART B — (5 x 16 = 80 marks)

11 (a) The ages of a sample of 8 faculty members selected from the School of Business Administration are shown below. Faculty Age 1 r 42 2 30 3 '73 4 50 5 ,51 6 37 7 42 8 59

Statistics For Management BA7102 Jan2014 1st Semester Question Paper



Statistics For Management BA7102 Jan2014 1st Semester Question Paper

Anna University Question Paper. Code :80312- I
Reg. No.
M.B.A. DEGREE EXAMINATION, JANUARY 2014
First Semester
BA 7102 — STATISTICS FOR MANAGEMENT
(Regulation 2013)

University Papers | Syllabus | Entrance Exam | Govt & PSU Papers | Bank Papers

Programming Questions  |  Travel Tips | Mobile Review | Placement Papers | Books



ANNA UNIVERSITY SYLLABUS: CLICK HERE

ANNA UNIVERSITY PAPERS: CLICK HERE

Download PDF File - CLICK HERE

For more question paper of MBA - CLICK HERE

PART A — (10 x 20 marks)

1. Give two examples for categorical variables.
2. What is a random variable?
3. Why does sampling introduce errors in research studies?
4. State the central limit theorem.
5. Define .a hypothesis.
6. Distinguish between paiametric and non parametric tests.
7. Name two non parametric tests of association.
8. Distinguish between Mann Whitney test and Kruskal Walls tests.
9. Distinguish between seasonal variations and cyclital variations in a time series data.
10. What is nonsense correlation?



PART B — (5 x 16 = 80 marks)

11 (a) The ages of a sample of 8 faculty members selected from the School of Business Administration are shown below. Faculty Age 1 r 42 2 30 3 '73 4 50 5 ,51 6 37 7 42 8 59

BHEL Previous Year Question Papers



BHEL Previous Year Question Papers

Download previous year solved question paper and sample papers of Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited - BHEL for the post of Engineer\Executive Trainee - ET, Assistant Engineer - AE, Assistant Foremen - AF, Engineering Assistant trainee, Senior Engineer, Manager, Deputy Engineer, Contract Engineer, Supervisors, Project Engineer and Graduate Apprentice trainee in various Engineering division recruitment examinations. 

You can download solved question papers for past 10 years, interview experience, Question paper pattern, syllabus, interview questions, model exam paper, answer keys, reference books,
MCQ (Multiple Choice Question Answers), subject wise study material


Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited - BHEL conducts examination for various branch of Engineering. Engineering Degree\Diploma Holders in Electronics, Electronics & Communication ECE, Electronics & Telecommunication, Communication, Telecommunication, Civil Engineering, Electrical, Electrical & Electronics Engineering - EEE, Mechanical, Computer Science, Computer Engineering, Computer Engineering and Computer Science & Engineering CSE disciplines  and MBA, MCA, MBBS, MD, Phd are eligible for applying for different examination.

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      About BHEL:

      Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) owned by Government of India, is a power plant equipment manufacturer and operates as an engineering and manufacturing company based in New Delhi, India. Established in 1964, BHEL is India's largest engineering and manufacturing company of its kind. The company has been earning profits continuously since 1971-72 and paying dividends uninterruptedly since 1976-77.

      It is engaged in the design, engineering, manufacture, construction, testing, commissioning and servicing of a wide range of products, systems and services for the core sectors of the economy, viz. Power, Transmission, Industry, Transportation, Renewable Energy, Oil & Gas and Defence.

      With a widespread network of 17 manufacturing units, two repair units, four regional offices, eight service centres, eight overseas offices, 15 regional centres, seven joint ventures, and infrastructure to execute more than 150 project sites across India and abroad, BHEL provides products, systems and services to customers efficiently and at competitive prices. The company has established capability to deliver 20,000 MW p.a. of power equipment to address the growing demand for power generation equipment. [3]

      BHEL has retained its market leadership position during 2013-14 with 72% market share in the Power Sector, even while operating in a difficult business environment. Improved focus on project execution enabled BHEL record highest ever commissioning/synchronization of 13,452 MW of power plants in domestic and international markets in 2013-14, marking a 30% increase over 2012-13. The company has added more than 1,24,000 MW to the country's installed power generating capacity so far.

      It also has been exporting its power and industry segment products and services for over 40 years. BHEL's global references are spread across over 76 countries across all the six continents of the world. The cumulative overseas installed capacity of BHEL manufactured power plants exceeds 9,000 MW across 21 countries including Malaysia, Oman, Iraq, the UAE, Bhutan, Egypt and New Zealand. Our physical exports range from turnkey projects to after sales services.

      Main manufacturing facilities
      • Electronics Division (EDN), Bangalore
      • Industrial Systems Group (ISG), Bangalore
      • Electro-Porcelains Division (EPD), Bangalore
      • Heavy electrical Plant (HEP), Bhopal
      • Industrial Valves Plant (IVP), Goindwal
      • Heavy Electrical Equipment Plant(HEEP), Haridwar
      • Central Foundry Forge Plant (CFFP), Haridwar
      • Heavy Power Equipment Plant, Hyderabad
      • Insulator Plant (IP), Jagdishpur
      • Centralised Stamping Unit & Fabrication Plant (CSU & FP), Jagdishpur
      • Transformer Plant, Jhansi
      • Boiler Auxiliaries Plant (BAP), Ranipet
      • Component Fabrication Plant (CFP), Rudrapur
      • High Pressure Boiler Plant (HPBP), Tiruchirapalli
      • Seamless Steel Tube Plant (SSTP), Tiruchirapalli
      • Power Plant Piping Unit, Thirumayam
      • Heavy Plates & Vessels Plant (HPVP), Visakhapatnam

      The company is also setting up a new Greenfield Power Equipment Fabrication Plant at Bhandara, Maharashtra, the foundation stone for which was laid on 14 May 2013. Further, BHEL is planning to enter solar manufacturing in a big scale, as it has announced its plans for a 600 MW Solar Module Factory.[5]
      Products and services
      Indian Railways WCAM 3 manufactured by BHEL

      Thermal power Plants [6]
      Nuclear power Plants
      Gas based power Plants
      Hydro power Plants
      DG power Plants
      Boilers (steam generator)
      Boiler Auxiliaries
      Gas generator
      Hydro generator
      Steam turbine
      Gas turbine
      Hydro turbine
      Transformer
      Switchgear
      Oil field equipment (OFE)
      Boiler drum
      Piping Systems
      Soot Blowers
      Valves
      Seamless Steel Tubes
      Condenser and Heat exchanger
      Pumps
      Desalination and Water treatment plants
      Automation and Control Systems
      Power electronics
      Transmission system control
      Semiconductor Devices
      Solar Photo voltaics
      Software System Solution
      Bus ducts
      Insulators
      Control panel
      Capacitors
      Bushings
      Electrical machines
      Compressors
      Control gear
      Traction motors
      Research and development products

      BHEL Electrical Question Papers 2008



      BHEL Electrical Question Papers 2008

      FOR MORE BHEL PAPERS: CLICK HERE

      BOOKS FOR BHEL EXAM: CLICK HERE

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      1. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41

      2. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K

      3. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is = 3270C

      4. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature

      5. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1)

      6. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2

      7. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K

      8. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine : a) 2 stroke petrol engine b)4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)

      9. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1

      10. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the: a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust temperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. = (e)

      11. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine

      12. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm

      13. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d)

      14. What is the value of Prandtl No.?

      15. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes d)………
      16. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air

      17. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11

      18. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical

      19. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. =centroid of the displaced volume of fluid

      20. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m

      21. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2

      22. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the centre of gravity should be. =Below the centre of buoyancy.

      23. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.

      24. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. =Cvv2gH



      25. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B

      26. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the centre.

      27. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m

      28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2

      29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2

      30. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is . =450

      31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.

      32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. = 0.21

      33. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM

      34. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5x105 joules. The mass of the car will be. =3000kg.

      35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends. The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8. http://www.ChetanaS.org
      36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2
      37. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6

      38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.

      39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.
      40. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR

      41. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.
      42. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between the two cars?
      43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.

      44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.

      45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.

      46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.

      47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel

      48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron

      49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm

      50. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.

      51. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry? =Diamond grit.

      52. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.
      53. PERT is: = event oriented technique

      54. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.

      55. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.
      56. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.

      57. ----- on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone

      58. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.
      59. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.
      60. Seamless tubes are made by?

      61. Why DC current is not used in transformer?

      62. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy.

      63. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the resistance force of the sand?

      BHEL Electrical Question Papers 2008



      BHEL Electrical Question Papers 2008

      FOR MORE BHEL PAPERS: CLICK HERE

      BOOKS FOR BHEL EXAM: CLICK HERE

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      Programming Questions  |  Travel Tips | Mobile Review | Placement Papers | Books



      1. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41

      2. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K

      3. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is = 3270C

      4. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature

      5. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1)

      6. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2

      7. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K

      8. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine : a) 2 stroke petrol engine b)4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)

      9. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1

      10. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the: a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust temperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. = (e)

      11. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine

      12. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm

      13. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d)

      14. What is the value of Prandtl No.?

      15. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes d)………
      16. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air

      17. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11

      18. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical

      19. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. =centroid of the displaced volume of fluid

      20. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m

      21. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2

      22. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the centre of gravity should be. =Below the centre of buoyancy.

      23. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.

      24. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. =Cvv2gH



      25. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B

      26. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the centre.

      27. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m

      28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2

      29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2

      30. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is . =450

      31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.

      32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. = 0.21

      33. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM

      34. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5x105 joules. The mass of the car will be. =3000kg.

      35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends. The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8. http://www.ChetanaS.org
      36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2
      37. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6

      38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.

      39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.
      40. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR

      41. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.
      42. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between the two cars?
      43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.

      44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.

      45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.

      46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.

      47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel

      48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron

      49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm

      50. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.

      51. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry? =Diamond grit.

      52. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.
      53. PERT is: = event oriented technique

      54. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.

      55. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.
      56. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.

      57. ----- on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone

      58. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.
      59. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.
      60. Seamless tubes are made by?

      61. Why DC current is not used in transformer?

      62. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy.

      63. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the resistance force of the sand?

      BHEL Electronics And Electrical Model Question Paper



      BHEL Electronics And Electrical Model Question Paper

      Here I am providing you the Model Paper of BHEL Electronics and Electrical Placement Exam

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      For Other PSU Exam Papers - CLICK HERE


      When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms

      a.) Resistanceb.) Reactancec.) Impedance d.) None

      Oscillator crystal are made of –

      a.) Silicon

      b.) Germanium

      c.) Quartz

      d.) None

      For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-a. )Airb. )Ferrite c.) Powdered ion
      d.) Steel
      If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area 'A' and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –

      a.)

      b.) C

      c.) 2C

      d.) 4C

      A superconductor is a –

      a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

      b.) A conductor having zero resistance

      c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility

      d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

      When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –

      a) 8.05 pF

      b) 10.05pF

      c.) 16.01pF

      d.) 20.01pF

      Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –

      a.) Inductance

      b.) Capacitance

      c.) Resistance

      d.) None

      Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –

      a.) Resistance in the line

      b.) Capacitor in series with contacts

      c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts

      d.) None

      RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –

      a.) Class 'A'

      b.) Class 'b'

      c.) Class 'C'

      d.) None

      The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –

      a.) High positive

      b.) High negative

      c.) Low positive

      d.) Zero

      The input gate current of a FET is –

      a.) a few microamperes

      b.) negligibly small

      c.) a few milliamperes

      d.) a few amperes

      In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –

      a.) 25 mA
      b.) 40 mA
      c.) 25/16 mA
      d.) 10 mA

      A step recovery diode –

      a.) has on extremely short recovery time

      b.) conducts equally well in both directions

      c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator

      d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

      In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-

      a.) 0.1V

      b.) 5V

      c.) 10V

      d) V

      In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –

      a.) source

      b.) drain

      c.) gate

      d.) none

      The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –a.) Triacb.) UJT c.) Diac
      d.) SCR
      A typical optical fibre has –

      a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding

      b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding

      c.) Both a and b

      d.) None

      In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –

      a.) 9

      b.) 11

      c.) 10

      d.) 21

      When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be – a.) 3 – j1 b.) 3 + j9
      c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
      d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
      In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load – a.) 5 b.) 6.5
      c.) 8
      d.) 9
      For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-a.) Z0 cot h Ölb.) Z0 cot Öl c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l
      d.) Z0 tan Öl
      The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –a.) lb.) l/4 c.) l/2
      d.) l/8
      A relatively permanent information is stored in

      a. ) ROM

      b.) RAM

      c.) PROM

      d.) Volatile memory

      The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to – b.) RC
      c.) 2RC
      d.) 4RC
      If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch 's' and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be – a.) cos50tA b.) 2A
      c.) 2cos100tA
      d.) 2sin50tA
      When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively – a) 9W, 6W and 6W b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
      c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
      d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
      When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
      d.) indeterminate
      Joule/coulomb is the unit of – a.) Electric field potential b.) Potential c .) Charge
      d.) None of the above
      The electric field line and equipotential lines-

      a.) Are parallel to each other

      b.)Are one and same

      c.) Cut each other orthogonally

      d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle

      For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line
      When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-

      a.) In the +x direction

      b.) In the –x direction

      c. ) In the +y direction

      d.) In the –y direction

      The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-

      a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation

      b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation

      c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

      d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

      The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-

      a.) TM01

      b.)TE10

      c.) TM112

      d.)TE11

      When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of 'p' watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –
      . When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be

      a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value

      b.)Remain the same

      c. )Increase

      d.)Decrease to zero

      When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-

      a.) A short – circuited stub at the load

      b.)An inductance at the load

      c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load

      d.)none of the above

      As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –a.) less accurateb.) more accurate c.) equally accurate
      d.) none.
      When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –a.) VTVMb.) Cathode ray oscilloscope c.) Moving iron voltmeter
      d.) Digital multimeter
      Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5. c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
      d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
      When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –a.) 11.1b.) 44.2 c.) 52.3
      d.) 66.3
      The Q of a radio coil –a.) is independent of frequencyb.) increases monotonically as frequency increases c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
      d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
      When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –a.) 0.5b.) 1.5 c.) 2.5
      d.) 1.75
      The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation) c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
      d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
      Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –

      a.) -2000C to 5000C

      b.) 00C to 5000C

      c.) 5000C to 12000C

      d.) 12000C to 25000C

      In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

      a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)

      b.) Silicon (Si)

      c.) Copper (Cu)

      d.) Germanium (Ge)

      When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –

      a.) 1

      b.) 2

      c.) 3

      d.) 4

      The circuit symbol for a GTO is

      a. b.

      c. d.

      In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

      a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
      b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
      c.) step up device
      d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

      In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
      S is closed at t = 0 the
      maximum value of current and the
      time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

      a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS

      b.) 50 A, 30 mSc.) 100 A, 62.828 mSd.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

      BHEL Electronics And Electrical Model Question Paper



      BHEL Electronics And Electrical Model Question Paper

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      When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms

      a.) Resistanceb.) Reactancec.) Impedance d.) None

      Oscillator crystal are made of –

      a.) Silicon

      b.) Germanium

      c.) Quartz

      d.) None

      For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-a. )Airb. )Ferrite c.) Powdered ion
      d.) Steel
      If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area 'A' and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –

      a.)

      b.) C

      c.) 2C

      d.) 4C

      A superconductor is a –

      a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

      b.) A conductor having zero resistance

      c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility

      d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

      When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –

      a) 8.05 pF

      b) 10.05pF

      c.) 16.01pF

      d.) 20.01pF

      Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –

      a.) Inductance

      b.) Capacitance

      c.) Resistance

      d.) None

      Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –

      a.) Resistance in the line

      b.) Capacitor in series with contacts

      c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts

      d.) None

      RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –

      a.) Class 'A'

      b.) Class 'b'

      c.) Class 'C'

      d.) None

      The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –

      a.) High positive

      b.) High negative

      c.) Low positive

      d.) Zero

      The input gate current of a FET is –

      a.) a few microamperes

      b.) negligibly small

      c.) a few milliamperes

      d.) a few amperes

      In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –

      a.) 25 mA
      b.) 40 mA
      c.) 25/16 mA
      d.) 10 mA

      A step recovery diode –

      a.) has on extremely short recovery time

      b.) conducts equally well in both directions

      c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator

      d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

      In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-

      a.) 0.1V

      b.) 5V

      c.) 10V

      d) V

      In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –

      a.) source

      b.) drain

      c.) gate

      d.) none

      The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –a.) Triacb.) UJT c.) Diac
      d.) SCR
      A typical optical fibre has –

      a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding

      b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding

      c.) Both a and b

      d.) None

      In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –

      a.) 9

      b.) 11

      c.) 10

      d.) 21

      When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be – a.) 3 – j1 b.) 3 + j9
      c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
      d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
      In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load – a.) 5 b.) 6.5
      c.) 8
      d.) 9
      For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-a.) Z0 cot h Ölb.) Z0 cot Öl c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l
      d.) Z0 tan Öl
      The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –a.) lb.) l/4 c.) l/2
      d.) l/8
      A relatively permanent information is stored in

      a. ) ROM

      b.) RAM

      c.) PROM

      d.) Volatile memory

      The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to – b.) RC
      c.) 2RC
      d.) 4RC
      If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch 's' and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be – a.) cos50tA b.) 2A
      c.) 2cos100tA
      d.) 2sin50tA
      When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively – a) 9W, 6W and 6W b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
      c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
      d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
      When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
      d.) indeterminate
      Joule/coulomb is the unit of – a.) Electric field potential b.) Potential c .) Charge
      d.) None of the above
      The electric field line and equipotential lines-

      a.) Are parallel to each other

      b.)Are one and same

      c.) Cut each other orthogonally

      d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle

      For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line
      When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-

      a.) In the +x direction

      b.) In the –x direction

      c. ) In the +y direction

      d.) In the –y direction

      The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-

      a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation

      b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation

      c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

      d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

      The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-

      a.) TM01

      b.)TE10

      c.) TM112

      d.)TE11

      When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of 'p' watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –
      . When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be

      a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value

      b.)Remain the same

      c. )Increase

      d.)Decrease to zero

      When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-

      a.) A short – circuited stub at the load

      b.)An inductance at the load

      c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load

      d.)none of the above

      As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –a.) less accurateb.) more accurate c.) equally accurate
      d.) none.
      When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –a.) VTVMb.) Cathode ray oscilloscope c.) Moving iron voltmeter
      d.) Digital multimeter
      Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5. c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
      d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
      When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –a.) 11.1b.) 44.2 c.) 52.3
      d.) 66.3
      The Q of a radio coil –a.) is independent of frequencyb.) increases monotonically as frequency increases c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
      d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
      When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –a.) 0.5b.) 1.5 c.) 2.5
      d.) 1.75
      The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation) c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
      d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
      Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –

      a.) -2000C to 5000C

      b.) 00C to 5000C

      c.) 5000C to 12000C

      d.) 12000C to 25000C

      In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

      a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)

      b.) Silicon (Si)

      c.) Copper (Cu)

      d.) Germanium (Ge)

      When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –

      a.) 1

      b.) 2

      c.) 3

      d.) 4

      The circuit symbol for a GTO is

      a. b.

      c. d.

      In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

      a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
      b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
      c.) step up device
      d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

      In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
      S is closed at t = 0 the
      maximum value of current and the
      time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

      a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS

      b.) 50 A, 30 mSc.) 100 A, 62.828 mSd.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

      BHEL Electronics Question Paper - 2006



      BHEL Electronics Question Paper - 2006

      BHEL Examination PAPER-2006
      Electronics/ Electrical engineering

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      1.Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
      1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
      2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
      3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
      4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)


      2.Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
      1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
      2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
      3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.


      3. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below. Codes
      a.) 1 and 4
      b.) 2 and 3
      c.) 1 and 3
      d.) 2 and 4
      4.For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at) The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
      a.) 150 samples per second
      b.) 200 samples per second
      c.) 300 samples per second
      d.) 350 samples per second


      5.In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
      a.) 34 and 106

      b.) 52. And 88
      c.) 106 and 142
      d.) 34 and 142


      6.Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
      a.) Pulse radar
      b.) Tracking radar
      c.) MTI radar
      d.) Mono pulse radar


      7.The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
      a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
      b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
      c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
      d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing


      8.Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
      a.) Compression of the modulating signal
      b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
      c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
      d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.


      9.In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
      a.) reflection from the ionosphere
      b.) line of sight mode
      c) reflection from the ground
      d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

      10.Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
      a.) increase the gain of the system
      b). increase the bandwidth of the system
      c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
      d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

      11.In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
      a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
      b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
      c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
      d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.


      12.When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
      a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
      b.)An inductance at the load
      c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
      d.)none of the above
      13.As compared to analog multimeters, digital Multimeters's are –
      a.) less accurate
      b.) more accurate
      c.) equally accurate
      d.) none.

      14.When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
      a.) VTVM
      b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
      c.) Moving iron voltmeter
      d.) Digital multimeter

      15.Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
      a.) It is biased almost to saturation
      b.)Its quiescent current is low
      c.)It's output is an exact replica of it's input
      d.)It is biased well below cut off


      16.The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
      a.) Direct coupling
      b.)Impedance coupling
      c.) R C coupling
      d.)Transformer coupling


      17.A superconductor is a –
      a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
      b.) A conductor having zero resistance
      c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
      d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

      18.When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
      a) 8.05 pF
      b) 10.05pF
      c.) 16.01pF
      d.) 20.01pF


      19.The Q of a radio coil –
      a.) is independent of frequency
      b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
      c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
      d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency


      20.When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
      a.) 0.5
      b.) 1.5
      c.) 2.5
      d.) 1.75


      21.The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
      a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
      b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
      c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
      d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)


      22.Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
      a.) -2000C to 5000C
      b.) 00C to 5000C
      c.) 5000C to 12000C
      d.) 12000C to 25000C


      23.RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
      a.) Class 'A'
      b.) Class 'b'
      c.) Class 'C'
      d.) None


      24.The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
      a.) High positive
      b.) High negative
      c.) Low positive
      d.) Zero

      BHEL Electronics Question Paper - 2006



      BHEL Electronics Question Paper - 2006

      BHEL Examination PAPER-2006
      Electronics/ Electrical engineering

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      1.Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
      1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
      2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
      3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
      4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)


      2.Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
      1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
      2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
      3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.


      3. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below. Codes
      a.) 1 and 4
      b.) 2 and 3
      c.) 1 and 3
      d.) 2 and 4
      4.For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at) The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
      a.) 150 samples per second
      b.) 200 samples per second
      c.) 300 samples per second
      d.) 350 samples per second


      5.In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
      a.) 34 and 106

      b.) 52. And 88
      c.) 106 and 142
      d.) 34 and 142


      6.Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
      a.) Pulse radar
      b.) Tracking radar
      c.) MTI radar
      d.) Mono pulse radar


      7.The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
      a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
      b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
      c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
      d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing


      8.Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
      a.) Compression of the modulating signal
      b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
      c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
      d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.


      9.In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
      a.) reflection from the ionosphere
      b.) line of sight mode
      c) reflection from the ground
      d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

      10.Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
      a.) increase the gain of the system
      b). increase the bandwidth of the system
      c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
      d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

      11.In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
      a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
      b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
      c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
      d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.


      12.When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
      a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
      b.)An inductance at the load
      c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
      d.)none of the above
      13.As compared to analog multimeters, digital Multimeters's are –
      a.) less accurate
      b.) more accurate
      c.) equally accurate
      d.) none.

      14.When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
      a.) VTVM
      b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
      c.) Moving iron voltmeter
      d.) Digital multimeter

      15.Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
      a.) It is biased almost to saturation
      b.)Its quiescent current is low
      c.)It's output is an exact replica of it's input
      d.)It is biased well below cut off


      16.The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
      a.) Direct coupling
      b.)Impedance coupling
      c.) R C coupling
      d.)Transformer coupling


      17.A superconductor is a –
      a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
      b.) A conductor having zero resistance
      c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
      d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

      18.When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
      a) 8.05 pF
      b) 10.05pF
      c.) 16.01pF
      d.) 20.01pF


      19.The Q of a radio coil –
      a.) is independent of frequency
      b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
      c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
      d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency


      20.When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
      a.) 0.5
      b.) 1.5
      c.) 2.5
      d.) 1.75


      21.The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
      a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
      b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
      c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
      d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)


      22.Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
      a.) -2000C to 5000C
      b.) 00C to 5000C
      c.) 5000C to 12000C
      d.) 12000C to 25000C


      23.RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
      a.) Class 'A'
      b.) Class 'b'
      c.) Class 'C'
      d.) None


      24.The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
      a.) High positive
      b.) High negative
      c.) Low positive
      d.) Zero